Studies
                                                    Homosexuality - Is It A Sin? (continued)

Hundreds of years later, in Leviticus 5:17, the Israelites were reminded that when a person does that which is forbidden by
the commandments of the Lord, it is sin.
Leviticus 5:17 -- "If a person sins, and commits any of these things which are forbidden to be done by the commandments of
the LORD, though he does not know it, yet he is guilty and shall bear his iniquity."
3. Similarly, in 1 John 3:4, we find that sin is referred to as transgression of law.
1 John 3:4 -- "Whoever commits sin also commits lawlessness, and sin is lawlessness."
KJV -- "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law."
4. John also states that "all unrighteousness is sin" (1 John 5:17).  Since righteousness is the quality of being right in the
eyes of God, we can see why Paul commanded the Corinthians to "Awake to righteousness, and do not sin…" (1
Corinthians 15:34).
5. Summing up what we have seen so far, we have learned that 1) sin is not acceptable, 2) one should rule over it, 3) it can
come by doing things which God has forbidden, 4) it results in breaking God's commands, 5) it is lawlessness, and 6) is not
right.

B. The Bible also teaches that a person can sin either willfully or ignorantly.
1. Some sin willfully, or on purpose, knowing full well the consequences of their actions.  Heb. 10:26-27 warn us that "...if we
sin willfully after we have received the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27 but a certain
fearful expectation of judgment, and fiery indignation which will devour the adversaries."
a. Conversely, some sin when they know to do good, but don't do it (Jas. 4:17).
b. Also, it can even be something done that violates our conscience, and is referred to as being "not of faith" (Rom. 14:23).
2. Secondly, it is possible to sin ignorantly, or without knowing it.
a. Leviticus chapters 4-5 deal with this issue (as we already noticed in one passage), and show that one can be guilty of sin,
even though he is ignorant of it.  Thus, sin can come upon us unawares.

C. Sin has some serious, eternal consequences.
1. Some sins that we commit have little or no physical consequences.  We may not get caught, or we may amend our
actions quickly to reverse or nullify the physical consequences.
2. But, sins always have spiritual consequences.  And, unless we repent of our sins, they can lead to or produce spiritual
death.
a. People can be considered dead to God, in their sins (Eph. 2:1, 5).
b. Because sin separates us from God (Isa. 59:1-2) and His fellowship, we must try our best to abstain from it.
c. Sinners will ultimately be condemned to eternal punishment in Hell (Mt. 25:46).
Jude 14-15 -- "Now Enoch, the seventh from Adam, prophesied about these men also, saying, “Behold, the Lord comes
with ten thousands of His saints, 15 “to execute judgment on all, to convict all who are ungodly among them of all their
ungodly deeds which they have committed in an ungodly way, and of all the harsh things which ungodly sinners have spoken
against Him.”"

D. Some folks claim that homosexuality cannot possibly be a sin, because it is not spoken of in the Bible.  But, is this true?
1. Since Homosexuality has to do with 'sexuality' we will now investigate what the Bible says about sins of a sexual nature,
and see what (if anything) the Bible says regarding our subject.

II. The Sin Of Fornication:
A. Funk & Wagnalls Standard College Dictionary defines 'fornication' as: "1. Voluntary sexual intercourse of an unmarried
person with another unmarried or married person of the opposite sex."
1. 'Fornication' is from the Greek word 'porneia' and literally means 'illicit sexual intercourse' (according to Vine's).  Strong's
Greek Lexicon states that it includes adultery, fornication, homosexuality, lesbianism, bestiality, incest, etc.
a. Sexual desire is a trait that God gave to man.  Fulfillment of this desire can be pleasurable, but should not be abused.  
From the beginning, God established that sexual desire be fulfilled only in the marriage relationship (Gen. 2:24) with one's
lawful spouse.  Prostitution and whoredom have always been sinful.
2. In Lev. 18:6-30 God spoke to Israel regarding fornication, incest, homosexuality, and bestiality.  In vss. 24-30, God
specifically stated that these sins are an abomination to Him, for they defile a man.
3. In the New Testament also, fornication is condemned as something that defiles a man (Mt. 15:19).  Shortly after this,
Jesus confirmed God's original law on marriage and sexuality.  In Mt. 19:4-6 Jesus "...answered and said to them, "Have
you not read that He who made them at the beginning 'made them male and female,' 5 "and said, 'For this reason a man
shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and the two shall become one flesh'? 6 "So then, they are no
longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate."
4. And as a general instruction to Christians, Paul said: "Now concerning the things of which you wrote to me: It is good for a
man not to touch a woman. 2 Nevertheless, because of sexual immorality, let each man have his own wife, and let each
woman have her own husband." (1 Cor. 7:1-2).

B. Fornication is a sinful work of the flesh (Gal. 5:19), which results in God's wrath (Col. 3:5).
1. Paul admonished the Corinthians that "The body is not for fornication, but for the Lord" (1 Cor. 6:13).  Tragically, some so-
called Christians, even religious leaders, are guilty of practicing it, and leaving a horrible example for others.
a. Hear what the apostle Paul declares in Eph. 5:5-7 -- "For this you know, that no fornicator, unclean person, nor covetous
man, who is an idolater, has any inheritance in the kingdom of Christ and God. 6 Let no one deceive you with empty words,
for because of these things the wrath of God comes upon the sons of disobedience. 7 Therefore do not be partakers with
them."
2. It is God's will that we all abstain from fornication (1 Thes. 4:3).  Too bad most of our public schools are led by liberal
leaders who will not heed the instructions in God's Book.  They don't teach abstinence, but rather their syllabus of so-called
'safe-sex'.
a. Their idea is: "experiment, enjoy it, do it all you want, but don't get pregnant or diseased".
b. But, God's idea of 'safe-sex' is only between husband and wife; all others will be condemned to Hell.  "Marriage is
honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge." (Heb. 13:4).
c. The principal may give you a pass, but God will give you a fail on the real 'Final Exam'.
3. Some folks just do not see the big deal in sharing their bodies in a sexual relationship with whomever they want,
whenever they want:
a. Well, just take a look sometime on the internet, or do some searching in the local library at all of the terrible
consequences that come from sexually transmitted diseases.  Look at the horrible deaths that result from AIDS and HIV.  
Look at the badly scarred lives of those families whose loved ones have been tragically taken.
b. Not only that -- but what about all of the lives of our world's so-called innocent teens and young adults who have become
parents (most of them single) because they could not keep their hormones from raging out of control, nor their hands, etc. to
themselves.  Listen again to 1 Thes. 4:3-5  "For this is the will of God, your sanctification: that you should abstain from
sexual immorality; 4 that each of you should know how to possess his own vessel in sanctification and honor, 5 not in
passion of lust, like the Gentiles who do not know God".
c. We need to strongly impress upon our youth that the place for the sexual relationship is only within the marriage
relationship.
d. As if we haven't said enough, let us not forget the hundreds of thousands of unborn babies who are thoughtlessly
murdered by those who so casually and carelessly fool around, and then have to deal with the temporal consequences of
their sin.  Folks, fornication is a soul-damning, life-wrecking sin.

III. The Sin Of Adultery:
A. 'Adultery' comes from the Greek term 'moicheia', and literally means 'voluntary sexual intercourse between a married
person and someone not their spouse'.  
1. Thus it would fall under the general heading of fornication (which includes any unlawful sexual act), which we looked at
previously.  A good definition from scripture is found in Ezek. 16:32.  It refers to "… an adulterous wife, who takes strangers
instead of her husband".

B. From the beginning, God's basic law has been plain -- 'one man with one woman, for life' (Gen. 2:24).  As time went on,
though, God had to speak concerning adultery:
1. In Ex. 20:14, Israel was commanded "You shall not commit adultery".  Also, "The man who commits adultery with another
man's wife, he who commits adultery with his neighbor's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress, shall surely be put to death."
(Lev. 20:10).  This was serious stuff!  God did not want this sin taking place among His people.
2. Though the pain of physical death was lifted under the New Covenant, adultery is still a sin today, as we have seen in
Heb. 13:4.
a. One of the things Jesus did in His teaching was to point out that adultery begins in the heart.  He said: "… I say to you that
whoever looks at a woman to lust for her has already committed adultery with her in his heart." (Mt. 5:28).
b. Sin originates within the mind of man.  Jesus said that "out of the heart proceed evil thoughts, murders, adulteries,
fornications" etc.  (Mt. 15:19).  James tells us in Jas. 1:14-15 that "...each one is tempted when he is drawn away by his own
desires and enticed. Then, when desire has conceived, it gives birth to sin; and sin, when it is full-grown, brings forth death."
c. If we keep adultery out of our hearts, it will never have a chance to ruin our lives.
3. According to God's marriage law cited by Jesus, a spouse guilty of adultery can be put away.  Hear it now: "And I say to
you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries
her who is divorced commits adultery." (Mt. 19:9)
a. Did you notice that those who marry the put away ones are guilty of adultery as well?  That's what Jesus said.
4. Those who are in adulterous marriages (Mk. 10:11-12) must repent, cease the practice of this sin, and leave the sinful
relationship.  Works befitting repentance (Acts 26:20) means ceasing the sinful act or condition.
a. Don't think to yourselves that this is not what was expected of N.T. Christians.  In 2 Cor. 12:21 the Apostle Paul warned
the Corinthian Christians to cease from their sinful practices.  He said: "lest, when I come again, my God will humble me
among you, and I shall mourn for many who have sinned before and have not repented of the uncleanness, fornication (which
includes adultery), and lewdness which they have practiced."
b. Only when we separate ourselves from this and other sins, can we be right in God's sight.  Remember "Marriage is
honorable among all, and the bed undefiled; but fornicators and adulterers God will judge." (Heb. 13:4).

IV. The Sin Of Homosexuality:
A. Now, we've looked at sexual sins in a broad sense, and in a narrower sense.  What does the Bible say (if anything) about
homosexuality?
1. First let's see how the world defines it:
a. Funk & Wagnalls Standard College Dictionary defines homosexuality as: "1. The condition of being sexually attracted to
persons of the same sex. 2. Sexual relations between those of the same sex."

B. Homosexuality is referred to with at least two terms in the N.T. scriptures.
1. The first term referring to homosexuality is the Greek term 'Malakos', translated as 'effeminate' (in the KJV), or
'homosexual' (in the NKJV).  'Malakos' literally means 'soft or soft to the touch'; and is used of raiment (Mt. 11:8; Lk. 7:25).  
But, it is also used metaphorically in a bad sense, as 1) of a catamite, 2) of a boy kept for homosexual relations with a man,
3) of a male who submits his body to unnatural lewdness, and 4) of a male prostitute.
2. The second term referring to homosexuality is 'arsenokoites', which is translated as 'abusers of themselves with mankind'
(in the KJV), or 'sodomite' (in the NKJV).  'Arsenokoites' means "one who lies with a male as with a female; a sodomite; or
a homosexual" (Strong's Lexicon).
3. Both of these terms are found in 1 Cor. 6:9-10, which say "Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the
kingdom of God? Do not be deceived. Neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor homosexuals, nor sodomites,
10 nor thieves, nor covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor extortioners will inherit the kingdom of God.".
a. Note - that the people who commit these acts are called unrighteous.  They are in sin, and cannot go to Heaven on
Judgment Day.
4. The second term is also found in 1 Tim. 1:10, written as "them that defile themselves with mankind" (in the KJV).  In 1 Tim.
1:8-11, Paul says: "But we know that the law is good if one uses it lawfully, 9 knowing this: that the law is not made for a
righteous person, but for the lawless and insubordinate, for the ungodly and for sinners, for the unholy and profane, for
murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 10 for fornicators, for sodomites, for kidnappers, for liars,
for perjurers, and if there is any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine, 11 according to the glorious gospel of the
blessed God which was committed to my trust."
a. Notice here that the term associated with homosexuals is in the context of that which is unrighteous, ungodly, sinful,
unholy, profane, and contrary to sound doctrine.  And, homosexuals fall into the same company as murderers, fornicators,
and kidnappers.
b. So how can people take homosexuality so lightly?  How can they easily dismiss it as an alternative lifestyle that others
should just wink at?

C. The Bible says many things regarding sexuality in general:
1. In the beginning, God made Adam and Eve (Gen. 2), not Adam and Steve.  Clearly, He planned on a male and a female
being husband and wife in the marriage relationship -- not two men as partners, or two women as a couple.
2. Early in the O.T. scriptures, we read of God utterly destroying the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah because their sin was
very grievous.  Gen. 13:13 says that "...the men of Sodom were exceedingly wicked and sinful against the Lord."  They were
going to be destroyed "Because the outcry against Sodom and Gomorrah is great, and because their sin is very grave..."
(Gen. 18:20).
a. One major reason why these men of Sodom were wicked and sinners, was because they were homosexuals, and wanted
to have sexual relations with the male sojourners.  Listen to what Gen. 19:4-5 say: "Now before they lay down, the men of the
city, the men of Sodom, both old and young, all the people from every quarter, surrounded the house. 5 And they called to
Lot and said to him, “Where are the men who came to you tonight? Bring them out to us that we may know them carnally.”".
b. The reason for homosexuals being called 'Sodomites' is because that was what Sodom was remembered for.  2 Pet. 2:6-
8 refer to this fact: "and turning the cities of Sodom and Gomorrah into ashes, condemned them to destruction, making them
an example to those who afterward would live ungodly; 7 and delivered righteous Lot, who was oppressed by the filthy
conduct of the wicked 8 (for that righteous man, dwelling among them, tormented his righteous soul from day to day by
seeing and hearing their lawless deeds)".
c. Thus, also equated with Sodomy are the terms "ungodly, filthy conduct, wicked, and lawless deeds"!  Jude verse 7 says
that these wicked men of Sodom gave themselves over to sexual immorality and that they went after strange flesh.  It is very
clear then that their sin of homosexuality is what contributed to their being "set forth as an example, suffering the vengeance
of eternal fire".
d. Through Moses, God taught Israel that homosexuality was an abomination (Lev. 18:22).  Lev. 18:22 -- "You shall not lie
with a male as with a woman. It is an abomination."  In fact, Lev. 20:13 says "If a man lies with a male as he lies with a
woman, both of them have committed an abomination. They shall surely be put to death. Their blood shall be upon them."  
Thus, God abhorred this sin.  This brings us right back to one of our definitions: 'Arsenokoites'.
3. In the N.T. scriptures, Paul taught that "the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and
unrighteousness of men".  Because men's hearts were darkened to commit sin, "For this reason God gave them up to vile
passions. For even their women exchanged the natural use for what is against nature. 27 Likewise also the men, leaving the
natural use of the woman, burned in their lust for one another, men with men committing what is shameful..." (Rom. 1:26-27).
a. So, even still in the N.T. era God considers homosexuality as a vile passion, as something against nature, and something
that is shameful.
b. Why in the name of all that is decent and good are there denominations that accept and promote practicing sodomites
into their leadership and teaching positions?  This is just pandering to Satan.
c. I challenge anyone to try to prove, from the scriptures, that homosexuality is in any way acceptable to God.  It can't be
done!

D. Though we may try to ease the consciences of those who are caught up in such lewd and sinful actions by watering down
the words that we use, it will not ultimately help them to get out of their sin.  By altering our language in order to be 'politically
correct', we won't assuage God's feelings toward this great abomination.  Rather, we need to get back to that which is
'religiously correct'.
1. 'Sodomy' is not an alternative lifestyle, it is a sinful one.  Sodomy is 'queer' and 'perverted' because it turns from that
which is natural to that which is unnatural.  'Homosexuality' is sinful because of it's vile passion for the same gender; it is
'sad' not gay, because of the sad situation that our world is in when we make excuses for sin.
a. Yes, we need to speak of this sin as the dirty, filthy, stinking stench of a thing that it is; and not perfume it, make it over, or
hide it in a disguise so that it looks pleasing to the eyes.  It's a soul-damning sin just like every other sin that was
condemned in the Bible.
b. Homosexuality also leaves behind the same path of destruction that fornication and adultery do.  AIDS, STD's, and other
medical problems are associated with this sinful lifestyle.  But, also many have pushed for parental rights and adoptive
rights which will inevitably spread the acceptance of this damning societal scourge even more.
2. If Sodomy truly is a disease or genetic disorder as some insist (though there is no sound medical proof to substantiate
this claim), then why did God want His people of the past to root out and destroy those who were engaged in it?  If it is not
really a sin, why did God demand that people repent of it.  How do you repent of a hopeless mental or medical condition?
a. And, to take something as beautiful and pristine as a rainbow (a symbol of God's promise to man) and use it as an
emblem of this perverted sin is just as wrong.  Satan transforms himself into an angel of light (2 Cor. 11:14), but he is still
Satan.

Conc.:
A. We must all remember that ANY lifestyle that is condemned in the Bible is one that must be repented of and cast off.  
Homosexuality will condemn one to hell just as adultery will condemn one to hell.  They are both acts of fornication that God
abhors.  But, homosexuality is also perverted and unnatural.
1. When the apostle Paul preached unto sinners, he commanded them "that they should repent and turn to God, and do
works befitting repentance." (Acts 26:20).  This is the same message that must be preached to homosexuals and every
other person that is living in sin.
2. Those who come to God must live a lifestyle that is holy and acceptable unto God (Rom. 12:1-2).  We must love the sinner
enough to show them their sin.  And, hate the sin enough to want to rescue folks from it's eternal consequences.
3. Don't hate a person who is deceived by Satan.  Love them enough to fight tooth and nail to save their souls from an
eternal hell.
                   Homosexuality - Is It A Sin?
                                         Scripture Reading: Genesis 2:15-25
A. The question of whether homosexuality is a sin, is one that has been hotly debated by the last few generations.  
And, there has been a great effort in recent years by some in this country both to recognize same gender relationships
and to legalize same gender marriage.

B. Many call for a fresh look at whether this topic should only be considered as a legal issue, and not a religious issue.  
Well, whether folks like it or not, it is a religious issue.  And, those of us who believe in God, and who purport to
follow the Bible, must be concerned with what God's Word has to say about it.

C. The question then is this: "Is homosexuality a sin"?
1. So, let's first look at what sin is; then we shall define homosexuality, and investigate whether or not it is sinful.

I. What Is 'Sin' ?
A. The word 'sin' comes from the Greek term 'hamartia' and means 'a missing of the mark'.  It is synonymous to
'lawlessness', 'iniquity', and 'unrighteousness'.
1. The word 'sin' is used some 446 times throughout the New King James Version of the Bible.  It is first mentioned
in Genesis 4:7 as being the result of doing what is not acceptable to God.
Genesis 4:6-7 -- "So the LORD said to Cain, "Why are you angry? And why has your countenance fallen? 7 "If you
do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its desire is for you, but you
should rule over it."
a. This passage shows us that the consequences of not 'doing well' is sin.  And, if we want to be acceptable to God,
we must rule over sin, and not let it rule over us.  Note how plainly God teaches that those things which He considers
to be sin can and must be ruled over by men.  Thus, we both have the ability and the responsibility to understand
God's Will and to act accordingly.
                             Did Jesus Take Our Place on the Cross?                                           
                                       Scripture Reading: Isa. 53

Intro.:
A. Substitution Assumed:
1. The Calvinistic Theory of Substitution teaches that Jesus took our place on the cross, died in our stead, suffered the guilt
and punishment that rightly belongs to us, became a curse in our place, and did everything in our place as a substitute.
2. Now, pause for a moment... Can you think of a passage in the Bible where Jesus ever said He was taking our place?  Did
the apostles ever say such a thing?  Can you think of a verse anywhere that declared Jesus as our substitute on the cross?
3. What we want to do in this study is to 'search the scriptures to find out whether these things are so' (Acts 17:11).

I. Implications of Substitution:
A. According to Calvin's Doctrine of Limited Atonement:
1. If Jesus removed God’s wrath against sin, satisfied divine justice, paid all our debt in our place, took our punishment for
sin upon Himself, became guilty with our guilt, and was cursed in our stead when He died on the cross, then He has already
'done it all' in our place.  Therefore, we cannot be guilty of anything.
a. If Jesus has already taken my punishment upon Himself, then I don't have to worry because my punishment was removed
2000 years ago!  I cannot be held accountable to God for what I've done, because my substitute has already taken that upon
Himself and removed any responsibility from me!
2. The only conclusions that can be reached from the substitution position are: 1) universal salvation, or 2) Calvin’s limited
atonement.
a. If Jesus died in the place of all humanity, then all humanity is universally saved.  John Calvin realized this was not
acceptable.  Therefore he taught the concept of limited atonement, that is, Jesus died for only the elect, and not for all people.
3. In his book "The Reformed Doctrine of Predestination", Lorraine Boettner wrote: "The great Baptist preacher Charles H.
Spurgeon said: 'If Christ has died for you, you can never be lost. God will not punish twice for one thing. If God punished
Christ for your sins He will not punish you. Payment God's justice cannot twice demand; first, at the bleeding Saviour's hand,
and then again at mine. How can God be just if he punished Christ, the substitute, and then man himself afterwards?' "
(Boettner, Loraine D.D. (1932). The Reformed Doctrine Of Predestination. Ch. 12, Sec. 4. http://www.ccel.
org/ccel/boettner/predest.i.html)
a. This statement accurately represents the doctrine of substitution.  And, this doctrine is patently wrong.  It has faulty
conclusions based upon faulty premises.

B. According to the word of God:
1. Despite what these men say, we are still accountable for our actions.
Rom. 2:6 teaches us that God "will render to each one according to his deeds".
Rom. 14:10, 12 say: "...For we will all stand before the judgment seat of Christ"…. "So then each of us shall give account of
himself to God.".

II. Problems with Substitution:
A. While many people accept the belief that Jesus died in their place on the cross, receiving the wrath due to them; many
cannot explain how Jesus was their substitute.  So, let us consider all the possible ways Jesus could be considered our
substitute; and see if any of them 1) makes sense, and 2) can be proven by the scriptures:

Was Jesus My Substitute:
1. In physical death?
a. If Jesus’ death was in place of my physical death, then I should not have to physically die.  But it is evident that all people
must still physically die ("as it is appointed", Heb. 9:27).  Do you know any people who just will not die? -- Any 200 or 2000
year olds?  No.  Therefore, Jesus did not take our place in physical death.

2. In spiritual death?
a. Spiritual death is separation from God due to sin (Rom. 6:23; Eph. 2:1).  We know that Jesus committed no sin (2 Cor. 5:
21; 1 Pet. 2:22).  We also know that He is not eternally separated from God; for after His resurrection, Jesus ascended to
the Father and began to reign (Acts 2:29-35; 7:56; Rom. 8:34; Heb. 10:12-13).  So, Jesus did not die spiritually and,
therefore, could not have taken our place in spiritual death.
b. Some have tried to teach that Jesus died spiritually on the cross as explanation for His statement "my God, my God, why
have you forsaken me?"  However, Jesus declared that the Father would never leave Him or forsake Him (Jn. 8:28-29; 16:
32-33).  To think that Jesus could be separated from the Father is to think of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as three
individual gods, rather than one triune God that the scriptures describe.
c. Another question: If Jesus had been separated from the Father and the Spirit, then who saved Him?  How was He
reconciled?  How did He escape eternal death and return to the right hand of God?


3. How about a 'physical death' for a 'spiritual death'?
a. The punishment for sins is worse than physical death (Heb. 10:26-31).  Punishment for sins is eternal separation from
God, eternal torment in hell with the devil and his angels, and the anguish of being cast out eternally from the presence of the
Lord.
b. A physical death cannot stand in the place of eternal, spiritual death.  Jesus’ physical death cannot take the place of my
deserved spiritual death due to sin.  And, the scriptures never allude to this being the case.

4. Jesus did not take our place on the cross.
a. How could Jesus have taken our place on the cross, for sins, when none of us have ever been scheduled to die on a cross
in the first place?  For Jesus to be our substitute on the cross means that I was supposed to be on the cross.  But the Bible
does not teach that all mankind was to be on the cross.  Jesus could not have saved us from the punishment of the cross
because the cross is not the punishment for our sins.

5. Jesus did not take our place in suffering for righteousness sake (1 Pet. 3:14).
a. Crucifixion was a truly terrible way to suffer, but there were also other terrible ways to suffer (i.e. fiery furnace, Dan. 3; Heb.
11:35-37).  Many of the apostles suffered as much for their faith in Jesus as Jesus suffered (Peter crucified, also).  If Jesus
took their place in suffering, why did the apostles suffer?  Why do Christians suffer?  Why did Jesus tell James and John that
they would drink the cup He was about to drink (Mk. 10:38-39)?  So, Jesus did not take our place in suffering otherwise we
would not have to suffer for the sake of Jesus.

6. Jesus did not take our place in punishment for sins.
a. The punishment for sins is still levied against the disobedient.  Jesus did not remove the wrath of God against sin.  God’s
wrath is still in place against all sinners (2 Thes. 1:6-9).
b. If the death of Jesus on the cross appeased and took away the wrath of God against sin, then the very nature of God was
changed.  We would expect that God would no longer have any such wrath and would no longer render punishment for sins
on anyone.
c. If Jesus received the punishment for the sins of the whole world, then no one will have to be punished for sins (even the
disobedient or evildoers) for Christ satisfied God’s wrath.  Clearly, Jesus did not take our place in punishment for sins since
punishment remains for the disobedient (Mt. 25:30, 46).


III. A Supposed 'Fix'
A. Well, the proponents of substitution recognize these problems.  Some will suggest that what Jesus suffered was not the
exact same punishment for sins that we might receive in eternal torment; it was just “equivalent” punishment, but not the
same in quantity or quality.
1. But to accept this doctrine makes God inconsistent.  Who knows, then, who will suffer, and in what way, if God can change
His mind about it.
2. It would be unjust for God to inflict eternal punishment on the lost when just a few hours of torture and physical death is
sufficient payment for their sins!

B. So, not only do the scriptures never speak of Jesus taking our place or acting as our substitute, but there are no
acceptable (scripture based) explanations to describe in what way Jesus could have been our substitute.
1. However, we do know that Jesus made propitiation and reconciliation for the whole world, and offers mankind a way to
receive forgiveness for sins.
2. The scriptures teach that Jesus died for all people, yet not all people will be saved because they will not meet the
conditions necessary to take advantage of His saving blood.

IV. Proof-Texts Of The Substitution Theory:
Doctrines such as these do not come about with absolutely no scriptural basis (as John Calvin was not an evil man, but a
great theologian).  But, they mostly come about due to a misunderstanding of scripture.  For instance:
A. Jesus Became Sin (2 Cor. 5:21)
2 Cor. 5:21 -- "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him."
1. It should be evident from the reading that there is nothing stated concerning Jesus dying in our place or becoming a
substitute for us.  Rather, the scriptures state that Jesus died "for us," "for our sake," and "on our behalf" as many other
translations word this verse.
2. If Jesus was a blemish free, spotless, holy, and righteous sacrifice, how could He actually and literally "be sin" or "be a
sinner" on the cross?  Heb. 4:15 tells us that Jesus is our high priest who was tempted like as we, yet without sin.  If Jesus
was without sin, how can we say that 2 Cor. 5:21 is teaching He had sin, or was blighted by sin?
3. Heb. 7:26-27 says that Jesus "was fitting for us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and has become
higher than the heavens ... this He did once for all when He offered up Himself."
a. The writer of Hebrews argued that Jesus did not have sin on Him when He offered Himself for us on the cross.  So how
should we understand Paul’s words that Jesus was made to be sin?
4. Some Bible versions have a footnote next to the word "sin" which says, "or to be a sin offering."  The idea here in this
context can mean "sin sacrifice" and this can be seen throughout the scriptures.
a. In Heb. 10:6-8 we see the same usage: " 'In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin You had no pleasure. 7 Then I said,
'Behold, I have come — In the volume of the book it is written of Me — To do Your will, O God.' 8 Previously saying,
'Sacrifice and offering, burnt offerings, and offerings for sin You did not desire, nor had pleasure in them' (which are offered
according to the law),"
b. Notice the words "sacrifices" in verses 6 and 8 are italicized because the whole phrase is not there in the Greek, just the
idiom.  The translators added the word "sacrifices" as it is implied and is required for understanding the text.
c. The New Living Translation (which I rarely consult) is correct in its translation of 2 Cor. 5:21, "For God made Christ, who
never sinned, to be the offering for our sin, so that we could be made right with God through Christ."
d. Is there any other reasonable way to understand how Jesus became sin without violating other plain passages of
scripture?
5. If sin is on Jesus and He dies with sin on Him, do we not realize the consequences of such a proposal?  Jesus dying with
sin on Him means He is not the perfect Lamb of God, but is a broken, blemished lamb that is unacceptable to God.
a. The Old Testament required all sacrifices for sin to be perfect and without blemish.  Jesus became the perfect sacrifice
for our sins (Heb. 7:26-27; 1 Pet. 1:18-19) and could not have sin on Him to be acceptable to God.
b. Thus Christ is always described as our sin sacrifice and never as our substitute in the scriptures (Heb. 10:9-10).

B. Jesus and the Curse (Gal. 3:10-13)
Gal. 3:10-13 --"For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, 'Cursed is everyone who
does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.' 11 But that no one is justified by the law in
the sight of God is evident, for 'the just shall live by faith.' 12 Yet the law is not of faith, but 'the man who does them shall live
by them.' 13 Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us (for it is written, 'Cursed is
everyone who hangs on a tree'),".
1. The curse that men bore was the curse of the law.  The Old Testament offered no method of true forgiveness, for "it is not
possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins" (Heb. 10:1-4).  Perfect law-keeping was the demand of the
law.  Anyone who violated the law became cursed, and all people violated the law of God.  Therefore, all people bore the
curse of the law.
2. Also, notice that the text does not say that God cursed Jesus.  The “curse” Jesus bore relates to the command given in
Deut. 21:22-23: "If a man has committed a sin deserving of death, and he is put to death, and you hang him on a tree, 23
“his body shall not remain overnight on the tree, but you shall surely bury him that day, so that you do not defile the land which
the LORD your God is giving you as an inheritance; for he who is hanged is accursed of God."
a. This is capital punishment for capital crimes.  If a man did something deserving of death, he was to be put to death and
hung on a tree for all to see that he was a violator of God’s law.  Notice also, that Paul explicitly does not quote the whole
sentence of being cursed by God, because Jesus was not cursed by God.
3. Did Jesus commit sin deserving of death?  Absolutely not!  Jesus was not a sinner and did not violate any of God’s laws.  
Jesus’ death removed the power and authority of the law, thereby removing the curse upon men (Col. 2:13-14; Eph. 2:14-16;
Heb. 8:6-7).  In what way did Jesus become a curse for us, according to the text?  He became a curse in the fact that He
was killed like a heinous criminal.  Jesus was not cursed by God, but viewed by the people as cursed.  The curse Jesus had
was not the curse of the Law, but the curse of dying on a tree.
a. The Jews considered Jesus guilty, charged Him of blasphemy and was therefore worthy of death (Mt. 27:39-43).  Jesus
did not become a curse in our place.  Rather, in the process of becoming our sacrifice for sins which removed 'our' curse,
the people perceived Jesus to be cursed by God.  Neither 2 Cor. 5:21 or Gal. 3:10-13 prove that Jesus died in our place.  
Rather, these passages continue to show Jesus acting as a sin sacrifice to remove our sins.

C. Jesus Bore Our Sins (1 Pet. 2:24)
1. If Jesus did not literally have the sins of the world placed upon Him, then what did Peter mean in 1 Pet. 2:24, "who Himself
bore our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, having died to sins, might live for righteousness — by whose stripes you
were healed."?
2. I think we must first notice what the text does actually say.  Notice that it says He “bore our sins in His own body on the
tree".  So what did the body of Christ do?  What does it mean when Peter says Jesus bore our sins?
a. The Greek preposition 'en' means "in, by, and with".  Jesus bore our sins.  How?  The prepositional phrase explains how
He bore our sins.  He bore them "in (or by) His own body on the tree" -- in other words 'in the crucifixion'.  This is very similar
to the wording in Heb. 9:28.
b. The word “bore” in the Greek is the word anaphero, which means “to carry up, take up, offer up.”.  There are two basic
meanings of this word, depending on the context, as used in only 12 N.T. scriptures.  One means to bear up, or carry:
Mt. 17:1 -- "Now after six days Jesus took Peter, James, and John his brother, led them up on a high mountain by
themselves;"
Lk. 24:51 -- "Now it came to pass, while He blessed them, that He was parted from them and carried up into heaven."
c. The other, in the context of a sacrifice, means to offer up:
Heb. 7:27 -- "who does not need daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the
people's, for this He did once for all when He offered up Himself."
Jas. 2:21 -- "Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?"
d. But, I believe Heb. 9:28 gives us insight as to how it should be used.  It says: "so Christ was offered once to bear the sins
of many. To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation."  It says that Christ
was presented to bear sins.  Notice, He was not going to offer sins as a sacrifice, but was going to bear them away in His
own sacrifice.
3. Understanding the word “bore” makes the words of Peter rather simple.  This passage does not say that Jesus “carried”
our sins literally 'in' or 'on' His body.  The body of Jesus was offered up on the cross as a sacrifice, an offering to God, to
bear away our sins.

D. Language of Isa. 53
1. This passage is often used to prove the theory of substitution.  So let's spend a little time looking at what Isaiah says in his
prophecy.
Verse 3 tells us that "He is despised and rejected by men" not by God.
Verse 4 says, "Surely He has borne our griefs And carried our sorrows;.."
We understand the word “bore” means “to take up; to carry; to take away; to remove”.
Matthew quotes this part of Isaiah’s prophecy in Mt. 8:16-17 and declares that Jesus fulfilled it while He was on the earth,
healing people of demon possession.  Jesus has taken away the people's sorrows and griefs in a limited sense.
"...Yet we esteemed Him stricken, Smitten by God, and afflicted."
Again, the text does not say that God afflicted Jesus, but that we esteemed (considered) Jesus afflicted by God.  This goes
to prove our understanding of Gal. 3.  Jesus was not cursed by God, but the people considered Jesus cursed of God.
Verse 6 is an important verse that we must understand: "...And the LORD has laid on Him the iniquity of us all."
What does it mean that the Lord "laid on Him" the iniquity of us all?  The word for "laid on" is the Hebrew word 'paga', which
means according to Strong’s, "come (betwixt), cause to entreat, fall (upon), make intercession, intercessor..."  In the same
context, the word used by translators is “intercession.”  Verse 12 says,
"And made intercession (paga) for the transgressors."  Similarly, Isa. 59:16, Jer. 7:16, and 15:11 has (paga) translated as
"intercession."  The Septuagint, uses the Greek word paredoken from paradidomi, meaning “to deliver up or intercede.”  
The base of this Greek word is found twice in the New Testament.
Rom. 8:32 says, "He who did not spare His own Son, but delivered (paradidomi) Him up for us all, how shall He not with Him
also freely give us all things?"
Similarly, Eph. 5:2 says, "And walk in love, as Christ also has loved us and given (paradidomi) Himself for us, an offering
and a sacrifice to God for a sweet-smelling aroma."
We're now able to see that there is nothing in these words implying substitution.  Rather, Isa. 53:6 is simply saying the Lord
delivered, offered, or gave up Jesus for the iniquity of us all.  Jesus' sacrifice was to make intercession for our iniquities.
Verse 8 does not require a substitutionary view either.  "...For the transgressions of My people He was stricken."
It simply tells us that it was because of our sins that Jesus was needed as a sacrifice for sins.
Verse 10 is useful because Isaiah says exactly what we have been arguing: "...When You make His soul an offering for sin,"
Thus, it states the very point we are making concerning Jesus’ death.  His death was not a substitution but a sin sacrifice.  
The sacrifice of Jesus was well-pleasing to God, offered on our behalf to open the way of God’s mercy for us.  This is exactly
what Paul said concerning Jesus in Eph. 5:2
Verse 11 says "By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many, For He shall bear their iniquities."
Hopefully we now understand what it means for Jesus to bear our iniquities, as we noted previously in 1 Pet. 2:24.  The
Hebrew word for “bear” here is sabal which means according to Strong’s “to carry (literally or figuratively).”
This is the same word used back in verse 4 of Isaiah that Jesus “carried (sabal) our sorrows.”  The Hebrew word sabal is
translated in the Septuagint with the word anaphero, which we noticed already means “to carry up, to carry away, to offer
up.”  Thus Jesus will take them away.
Finally, verse 12 concludes, "...And He bore the sin of many, And made intercession for the transgressors."
The Hebrew word for “bore” is nasa which means “to lift, to carry, to take.”  Similarly, the Hebrew word nasa is also
translated by the Septuagint with the word anaphero.  Again, the meaning is that Jesus took away our sins and carries them
away in His sacrifice to God.
Therefore, the Bible claims Jesus not as our substitute but a pleasing sacrifice offered up for us.

V. Songs We Sing:
We have songs that assert the substitution theory as scriptural fact.  In our book "Hymns For Worship":
#152 "By Christ Redeemed" -- Vs. 2 "His body given in our stead".
#158 "Nailed To The Cross" -- Vs. 1 "There was one who was willing to die in my stead,"
#161 "Hallelujah! What A Savior!" -- Vs. 2 "In my place condemned He stood"
#165 "Thus Remember Me" -- Vs. 2 "Jesus, given in our stead"
#176 "In The Glory Of His Cross" -- Vs. 2 "...so that He could take my place"
And, there may be others which we have missed...
We may have never thought about some of these words before.  And, we may not be conscious as to how they are
understood by others, especially of those in denominations which accept Calvinist doctrine.
About two years ago, we decided that we didn't want to teach and admonish others with error, or with a false understanding.  
So, no longer sing them.

Conc.:
A. Nothing in the Bible declares Jesus dying in our stead or acting as a substitute for us. Rather, Jesus paid the ransom
price, through His death, to redeem us to God.


Sam Csonka-Minister