

Studies |


| Homosexuality - Is It A Sin? Scripture Reading: Genesis 2:15-25 A. The question of whether homosexuality is a sin, is one that has been hotly debated by the last few generations. And, there has been a great effort in recent years by some in this country both to recognize same gender relationships and to legalize same gender marriage. B. Many call for a fresh look at whether this topic should only be considered as a legal issue, and not a religious issue. Well, whether folks like it or not, it is a religious issue. And, those of us who believe in God, and who purport to follow the Bible, must be concerned with what God's Word has to say about it. C. The question then is this: "Is homosexuality a sin"? 1. So, let's first look at what sin is; then we shall define homosexuality, and investigate whether or not it is sinful. I. What Is 'Sin' ? A. The word 'sin' comes from the Greek term 'hamartia' and means 'a missing of the mark'. It is synonymous to 'lawlessness', 'iniquity', and 'unrighteousness'. 1. The word 'sin' is used some 446 times throughout the New King James Version of the Bible. It is first mentioned in Genesis 4:7 as being the result of doing what is not acceptable to God. Genesis 4:6-7 -- "So the LORD said to Cain, "Why are you angry? And why has your countenance fallen? 7 "If you do well, will you not be accepted? And if you do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its desire is for you, but you should rule over it." a. This passage shows us that the consequences of not 'doing well' is sin. And, if we want to be acceptable to God, we must rule over sin, and not let it rule over us. Note how plainly God teaches that those things which He considers to be sin can and must be ruled over by men. Thus, we both have the ability and the responsibility to understand God's Will and to act accordingly. |
| Did Jesus Take Our Place on the Cross? Scripture Reading: Isa. 53 Intro.: A. Substitution Assumed: 1. The Calvinistic Theory of Substitution teaches that Jesus took our place on the cross, died in our stead, suffered the guilt and punishment that rightly belongs to us, became a curse in our place, and did everything in our place as a substitute. 2. Now, pause for a moment... Can you think of a passage in the Bible where Jesus ever said He was taking our place? Did the apostles ever say such a thing? Can you think of a verse anywhere that declared Jesus as our substitute on the cross? 3. What we want to do in this study is to 'search the scriptures to find out whether these things are so' (Acts 17:11). I. Implications of Substitution: A. According to Calvin's Doctrine of Limited Atonement: 1. If Jesus removed God’s wrath against sin, satisfied divine justice, paid all our debt in our place, took our punishment for sin upon Himself, became guilty with our guilt, and was cursed in our stead when He died on the cross, then He has already 'done it all' in our place. Therefore, we cannot be guilty of anything. a. If Jesus has already taken my punishment upon Himself, then I don't have to worry because my punishment was removed 2000 years ago! I cannot be held accountable to God for what I've done, because my substitute has already taken that upon Himself and removed any responsibility from me! 2. The only conclusions that can be reached from the substitution position are: 1) universal salvation, or 2) Calvin’s limited atonement. a. If Jesus died in the place of all humanity, then all humanity is universally saved. John Calvin realized this was not acceptable. Therefore he taught the concept of limited atonement, that is, Jesus died for only the elect, and not for all people. 3. In his book "The Reformed Doctrine of Predestination", Lorraine Boettner wrote: "The great Baptist preacher Charles H. Spurgeon said: 'If Christ has died for you, you can never be lost. God will not punish twice for one thing. If God punished Christ for your sins He will not punish you. Payment God's justice cannot twice demand; first, at the bleeding Saviour's hand, and then again at mine. How can God be just if he punished Christ, the substitute, and then man himself afterwards?' " (Boettner, Loraine D.D. (1932). The Reformed Doctrine Of Predestination. Ch. 12, Sec. 4. http://www.ccel. org/ccel/boettner/predest.i.html) a. This statement accurately represents the doctrine of substitution. And, this doctrine is patently wrong. It has faulty conclusions based upon faulty premises. B. According to the word of God: 1. Despite what these men say, we are still accountable for our actions. Rom. 2:6 teaches us that God "will render to each one according to his deeds". Rom. 14:10, 12 say: "...For we will all stand before the judgment seat of Christ"…. "So then each of us shall give account of himself to God.". II. Problems with Substitution: A. While many people accept the belief that Jesus died in their place on the cross, receiving the wrath due to them; many cannot explain how Jesus was their substitute. So, let us consider all the possible ways Jesus could be considered our substitute; and see if any of them 1) makes sense, and 2) can be proven by the scriptures: Was Jesus My Substitute: 1. In physical death? a. If Jesus’ death was in place of my physical death, then I should not have to physically die. But it is evident that all people must still physically die ("as it is appointed", Heb. 9:27). Do you know any people who just will not die? -- Any 200 or 2000 year olds? No. Therefore, Jesus did not take our place in physical death. 2. In spiritual death? a. Spiritual death is separation from God due to sin (Rom. 6:23; Eph. 2:1). We know that Jesus committed no sin (2 Cor. 5: 21; 1 Pet. 2:22). We also know that He is not eternally separated from God; for after His resurrection, Jesus ascended to the Father and began to reign (Acts 2:29-35; 7:56; Rom. 8:34; Heb. 10:12-13). So, Jesus did not die spiritually and, therefore, could not have taken our place in spiritual death. b. Some have tried to teach that Jesus died spiritually on the cross as explanation for His statement "my God, my God, why have you forsaken me?" However, Jesus declared that the Father would never leave Him or forsake Him (Jn. 8:28-29; 16: 32-33). To think that Jesus could be separated from the Father is to think of the Father, Son, and Holy Spirit as three individual gods, rather than one triune God that the scriptures describe. c. Another question: If Jesus had been separated from the Father and the Spirit, then who saved Him? How was He reconciled? How did He escape eternal death and return to the right hand of God? 3. How about a 'physical death' for a 'spiritual death'? a. The punishment for sins is worse than physical death (Heb. 10:26-31). Punishment for sins is eternal separation from God, eternal torment in hell with the devil and his angels, and the anguish of being cast out eternally from the presence of the Lord. b. A physical death cannot stand in the place of eternal, spiritual death. Jesus’ physical death cannot take the place of my deserved spiritual death due to sin. And, the scriptures never allude to this being the case. 4. Jesus did not take our place on the cross. a. How could Jesus have taken our place on the cross, for sins, when none of us have ever been scheduled to die on a cross in the first place? For Jesus to be our substitute on the cross means that I was supposed to be on the cross. But the Bible does not teach that all mankind was to be on the cross. Jesus could not have saved us from the punishment of the cross because the cross is not the punishment for our sins. 5. Jesus did not take our place in suffering for righteousness sake (1 Pet. 3:14). a. Crucifixion was a truly terrible way to suffer, but there were also other terrible ways to suffer (i.e. fiery furnace, Dan. 3; Heb. 11:35-37). Many of the apostles suffered as much for their faith in Jesus as Jesus suffered (Peter crucified, also). If Jesus took their place in suffering, why did the apostles suffer? Why do Christians suffer? Why did Jesus tell James and John that they would drink the cup He was about to drink (Mk. 10:38-39)? So, Jesus did not take our place in suffering otherwise we would not have to suffer for the sake of Jesus. 6. Jesus did not take our place in punishment for sins. a. The punishment for sins is still levied against the disobedient. Jesus did not remove the wrath of God against sin. God’s wrath is still in place against all sinners (2 Thes. 1:6-9). b. If the death of Jesus on the cross appeased and took away the wrath of God against sin, then the very nature of God was changed. We would expect that God would no longer have any such wrath and would no longer render punishment for sins on anyone. c. If Jesus received the punishment for the sins of the whole world, then no one will have to be punished for sins (even the disobedient or evildoers) for Christ satisfied God’s wrath. Clearly, Jesus did not take our place in punishment for sins since punishment remains for the disobedient (Mt. 25:30, 46). III. A Supposed 'Fix' A. Well, the proponents of substitution recognize these problems. Some will suggest that what Jesus suffered was not the exact same punishment for sins that we might receive in eternal torment; it was just “equivalent” punishment, but not the same in quantity or quality. 1. But to accept this doctrine makes God inconsistent. Who knows, then, who will suffer, and in what way, if God can change His mind about it. 2. It would be unjust for God to inflict eternal punishment on the lost when just a few hours of torture and physical death is sufficient payment for their sins! B. So, not only do the scriptures never speak of Jesus taking our place or acting as our substitute, but there are no acceptable (scripture based) explanations to describe in what way Jesus could have been our substitute. 1. However, we do know that Jesus made propitiation and reconciliation for the whole world, and offers mankind a way to receive forgiveness for sins. 2. The scriptures teach that Jesus died for all people, yet not all people will be saved because they will not meet the conditions necessary to take advantage of His saving blood. IV. Proof-Texts Of The Substitution Theory: Doctrines such as these do not come about with absolutely no scriptural basis (as John Calvin was not an evil man, but a great theologian). But, they mostly come about due to a misunderstanding of scripture. For instance: A. Jesus Became Sin (2 Cor. 5:21) 2 Cor. 5:21 -- "For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us, that we might become the righteousness of God in Him." 1. It should be evident from the reading that there is nothing stated concerning Jesus dying in our place or becoming a substitute for us. Rather, the scriptures state that Jesus died "for us," "for our sake," and "on our behalf" as many other translations word this verse. 2. If Jesus was a blemish free, spotless, holy, and righteous sacrifice, how could He actually and literally "be sin" or "be a sinner" on the cross? Heb. 4:15 tells us that Jesus is our high priest who was tempted like as we, yet without sin. If Jesus was without sin, how can we say that 2 Cor. 5:21 is teaching He had sin, or was blighted by sin? 3. Heb. 7:26-27 says that Jesus "was fitting for us, who is holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners, and has become higher than the heavens ... this He did once for all when He offered up Himself." a. The writer of Hebrews argued that Jesus did not have sin on Him when He offered Himself for us on the cross. So how should we understand Paul’s words that Jesus was made to be sin? 4. Some Bible versions have a footnote next to the word "sin" which says, "or to be a sin offering." The idea here in this context can mean "sin sacrifice" and this can be seen throughout the scriptures. a. In Heb. 10:6-8 we see the same usage: " 'In burnt offerings and sacrifices for sin You had no pleasure. 7 Then I said, 'Behold, I have come — In the volume of the book it is written of Me — To do Your will, O God.' 8 Previously saying, 'Sacrifice and offering, burnt offerings, and offerings for sin You did not desire, nor had pleasure in them' (which are offered according to the law)," b. Notice the words "sacrifices" in verses 6 and 8 are italicized because the whole phrase is not there in the Greek, just the idiom. The translators added the word "sacrifices" as it is implied and is required for understanding the text. c. The New Living Translation (which I rarely consult) is correct in its translation of 2 Cor. 5:21, "For God made Christ, who never sinned, to be the offering for our sin, so that we could be made right with God through Christ." d. Is there any other reasonable way to understand how Jesus became sin without violating other plain passages of scripture? 5. If sin is on Jesus and He dies with sin on Him, do we not realize the consequences of such a proposal? Jesus dying with sin on Him means He is not the perfect Lamb of God, but is a broken, blemished lamb that is unacceptable to God. a. The Old Testament required all sacrifices for sin to be perfect and without blemish. Jesus became the perfect sacrifice for our sins (Heb. 7:26-27; 1 Pet. 1:18-19) and could not have sin on Him to be acceptable to God. b. Thus Christ is always described as our sin sacrifice and never as our substitute in the scriptures (Heb. 10:9-10). B. Jesus and the Curse (Gal. 3:10-13) Gal. 3:10-13 --"For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse; for it is written, 'Cursed is everyone who does not continue in all things which are written in the book of the law, to do them.' 11 But that no one is justified by the law in the sight of God is evident, for 'the just shall live by faith.' 12 Yet the law is not of faith, but 'the man who does them shall live by them.' 13 Christ has redeemed us from the curse of the law, having become a curse for us (for it is written, 'Cursed is everyone who hangs on a tree'),". 1. The curse that men bore was the curse of the law. The Old Testament offered no method of true forgiveness, for "it is not possible that the blood of bulls and goats could take away sins" (Heb. 10:1-4). Perfect law-keeping was the demand of the law. Anyone who violated the law became cursed, and all people violated the law of God. Therefore, all people bore the curse of the law. 2. Also, notice that the text does not say that God cursed Jesus. The “curse” Jesus bore relates to the command given in Deut. 21:22-23: "If a man has committed a sin deserving of death, and he is put to death, and you hang him on a tree, 23 “his body shall not remain overnight on the tree, but you shall surely bury him that day, so that you do not defile the land which the LORD your God is giving you as an inheritance; for he who is hanged is accursed of God." a. This is capital punishment for capital crimes. If a man did something deserving of death, he was to be put to death and hung on a tree for all to see that he was a violator of God’s law. Notice also, that Paul explicitly does not quote the whole sentence of being cursed by God, because Jesus was not cursed by God. 3. Did Jesus commit sin deserving of death? Absolutely not! Jesus was not a sinner and did not violate any of God’s laws. Jesus’ death removed the power and authority of the law, thereby removing the curse upon men (Col. 2:13-14; Eph. 2:14-16; Heb. 8:6-7). In what way did Jesus become a curse for us, according to the text? He became a curse in the fact that He was killed like a heinous criminal. Jesus was not cursed by God, but viewed by the people as cursed. The curse Jesus had was not the curse of the Law, but the curse of dying on a tree. a. The Jews considered Jesus guilty, charged Him of blasphemy and was therefore worthy of death (Mt. 27:39-43). Jesus did not become a curse in our place. Rather, in the process of becoming our sacrifice for sins which removed 'our' curse, the people perceived Jesus to be cursed by God. Neither 2 Cor. 5:21 or Gal. 3:10-13 prove that Jesus died in our place. Rather, these passages continue to show Jesus acting as a sin sacrifice to remove our sins. C. Jesus Bore Our Sins (1 Pet. 2:24) 1. If Jesus did not literally have the sins of the world placed upon Him, then what did Peter mean in 1 Pet. 2:24, "who Himself bore our sins in His own body on the tree, that we, having died to sins, might live for righteousness — by whose stripes you were healed."? 2. I think we must first notice what the text does actually say. Notice that it says He “bore our sins in His own body on the tree". So what did the body of Christ do? What does it mean when Peter says Jesus bore our sins? a. The Greek preposition 'en' means "in, by, and with". Jesus bore our sins. How? The prepositional phrase explains how He bore our sins. He bore them "in (or by) His own body on the tree" -- in other words 'in the crucifixion'. This is very similar to the wording in Heb. 9:28. b. The word “bore” in the Greek is the word anaphero, which means “to carry up, take up, offer up.”. There are two basic meanings of this word, depending on the context, as used in only 12 N.T. scriptures. One means to bear up, or carry: Mt. 17:1 -- "Now after six days Jesus took Peter, James, and John his brother, led them up on a high mountain by themselves;" Lk. 24:51 -- "Now it came to pass, while He blessed them, that He was parted from them and carried up into heaven." c. The other, in the context of a sacrifice, means to offer up: Heb. 7:27 -- "who does not need daily, as those high priests, to offer up sacrifices, first for His own sins and then for the people's, for this He did once for all when He offered up Himself." Jas. 2:21 -- "Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?" d. But, I believe Heb. 9:28 gives us insight as to how it should be used. It says: "so Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many. To those who eagerly wait for Him He will appear a second time, apart from sin, for salvation." It says that Christ was presented to bear sins. Notice, He was not going to offer sins as a sacrifice, but was going to bear them away in His own sacrifice. 3. Understanding the word “bore” makes the words of Peter rather simple. This passage does not say that Jesus “carried” our sins literally 'in' or 'on' His body. The body of Jesus was offered up on the cross as a sacrifice, an offering to God, to bear away our sins. D. Language of Isa. 53 1. This passage is often used to prove the theory of substitution. So let's spend a little time looking at what Isaiah says in his prophecy. Verse 3 tells us that "He is despised and rejected by men" not by God. Verse 4 says, "Surely He has borne our griefs And carried our sorrows;.." We understand the word “bore” means “to take up; to carry; to take away; to remove”. Matthew quotes this part of Isaiah’s prophecy in Mt. 8:16-17 and declares that Jesus fulfilled it while He was on the earth, healing people of demon possession. Jesus has taken away the people's sorrows and griefs in a limited sense. "...Yet we esteemed Him stricken, Smitten by God, and afflicted." Again, the text does not say that God afflicted Jesus, but that we esteemed (considered) Jesus afflicted by God. This goes to prove our understanding of Gal. 3. Jesus was not cursed by God, but the people considered Jesus cursed of God. Verse 6 is an important verse that we must understand: "...And the LORD has laid on Him the iniquity of us all." What does it mean that the Lord "laid on Him" the iniquity of us all? The word for "laid on" is the Hebrew word 'paga', which means according to Strong’s, "come (betwixt), cause to entreat, fall (upon), make intercession, intercessor..." In the same context, the word used by translators is “intercession.” Verse 12 says, "And made intercession (paga) for the transgressors." Similarly, Isa. 59:16, Jer. 7:16, and 15:11 has (paga) translated as "intercession." The Septuagint, uses the Greek word paredoken from paradidomi, meaning “to deliver up or intercede.” The base of this Greek word is found twice in the New Testament. Rom. 8:32 says, "He who did not spare His own Son, but delivered (paradidomi) Him up for us all, how shall He not with Him also freely give us all things?" Similarly, Eph. 5:2 says, "And walk in love, as Christ also has loved us and given (paradidomi) Himself for us, an offering and a sacrifice to God for a sweet-smelling aroma." We're now able to see that there is nothing in these words implying substitution. Rather, Isa. 53:6 is simply saying the Lord delivered, offered, or gave up Jesus for the iniquity of us all. Jesus' sacrifice was to make intercession for our iniquities. Verse 8 does not require a substitutionary view either. "...For the transgressions of My people He was stricken." It simply tells us that it was because of our sins that Jesus was needed as a sacrifice for sins. Verse 10 is useful because Isaiah says exactly what we have been arguing: "...When You make His soul an offering for sin," Thus, it states the very point we are making concerning Jesus’ death. His death was not a substitution but a sin sacrifice. The sacrifice of Jesus was well-pleasing to God, offered on our behalf to open the way of God’s mercy for us. This is exactly what Paul said concerning Jesus in Eph. 5:2 Verse 11 says "By His knowledge My righteous Servant shall justify many, For He shall bear their iniquities." Hopefully we now understand what it means for Jesus to bear our iniquities, as we noted previously in 1 Pet. 2:24. The Hebrew word for “bear” here is sabal which means according to Strong’s “to carry (literally or figuratively).” This is the same word used back in verse 4 of Isaiah that Jesus “carried (sabal) our sorrows.” The Hebrew word sabal is translated in the Septuagint with the word anaphero, which we noticed already means “to carry up, to carry away, to offer up.” Thus Jesus will take them away. Finally, verse 12 concludes, "...And He bore the sin of many, And made intercession for the transgressors." The Hebrew word for “bore” is nasa which means “to lift, to carry, to take.” Similarly, the Hebrew word nasa is also translated by the Septuagint with the word anaphero. Again, the meaning is that Jesus took away our sins and carries them away in His sacrifice to God. Therefore, the Bible claims Jesus not as our substitute but a pleasing sacrifice offered up for us. V. Songs We Sing: We have songs that assert the substitution theory as scriptural fact. In our book "Hymns For Worship": #152 "By Christ Redeemed" -- Vs. 2 "His body given in our stead". #158 "Nailed To The Cross" -- Vs. 1 "There was one who was willing to die in my stead," #161 "Hallelujah! What A Savior!" -- Vs. 2 "In my place condemned He stood" #165 "Thus Remember Me" -- Vs. 2 "Jesus, given in our stead" #176 "In The Glory Of His Cross" -- Vs. 2 "...so that He could take my place" And, there may be others which we have missed... We may have never thought about some of these words before. And, we may not be conscious as to how they are understood by others, especially of those in denominations which accept Calvinist doctrine. About two years ago, we decided that we didn't want to teach and admonish others with error, or with a false understanding. So, no longer sing them. Conc.: A. Nothing in the Bible declares Jesus dying in our stead or acting as a substitute for us. Rather, Jesus paid the ransom price, through His death, to redeem us to God. Sam Csonka-Minister |